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Cellular Phone Forum / Country Specific / UK Group / December 2003

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Roaming confusion

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firedragonuk@hotmail.com - 29 Dec 2003 17:05 GMT
I'm really confused by this whole roaming cost thing so hopefully one of you
nice people could clear some things up for me.

If my phone allows international roaming and I am now abroad and fully
connected to the foreign network...

1) If I am called and I do not answer, or no coverage etc and voicemail
divert is on then I am charged for the call from the UK to me and then from
me back to voicemail?
2) If voicemail is deactivated and I don't answer the phone or am
unavailable etc are there any charges? Or are they only applicable on
termination?
3) Do I pay for UK -> me text message cost?
4) If I use my phone to always divert to voicemail. Is that an unconditional
divert and so a caller goes straight to UK voicemail and so no extra charges
for me?
5) When abroad if my phone is non-international activated or not turned on
then it is as if I am still in UK? The minute (second?) the phone latches
onto a foreign network then all calls will go abroad until I am
re-registered onto a UK network? So large voicemail bills possible.

If 2 works, then I guess safest thing is to ensure lowest call costs is to
set up an approved "whitelist" or to screen all calls manually.

It should all be pretty straightforward I'm sure but I just don't seem to be
able to clear it in my mind :-(
Paul - 29 Dec 2003 18:22 GMT
> 1) If I am called and I do not answer, or no coverage etc and voicemail
> divert is on then I am charged for the call from the UK to me and then from
> me back to voicemail?

i) If you are called and you just don't answer you are charged for both legs
of the call
ii) If you are called and your phone is out of coverage but still "signed
in" to the foreign network you are charged for both legs of the call. This
happens when you go out of the service area for short periods (travelling on
uderground trains etc
iii) If you are called and your phone is switched off (and was switched off
whilst in coverage) you are usually not charged as your phone will have
"signed off" the network when it was turned off and handed back to your home
network

> 2) If voicemail is deactivated and I don't answer the phone or am
> unavailable etc are there any charges? Or are they only applicable on
> termination?

Only usually applicable on termination. There is not usually any charged
involved in playing a recorded announcement

> 3) Do I pay for UK -> me text message cost?

Not usually. There used to be a few exceptions (Russia used to be one), not
sure if there still are?

> 4) If I use my phone to always divert to voicemail. Is that an unconditional
> divert and so a caller goes straight to UK voicemail and so no extra charges
> for me?

Yoes that is an unconditional divert and as such there should be no chage as
it will be handled completely by your home network

> 5) When abroad if my phone is non-international activated or not turned on
> then it is as if I am still in UK? The minute (second?) the phone latches
> onto a foreign network then all calls will go abroad until I am
> re-registered onto a UK network? So large voicemail bills possible.

To be safe use an unconditional divert to voicemail.

> If 2 works, then I guess safest thing is to ensure lowest call costs is to
> set up an approved "whitelist" or to screen all calls manually.

Caller ID doesn't always work on foreign networks so you may have difficulty
doing this!

> It should all be pretty straightforward I'm sure but I just don't seem to be
> able to clear it in my mind :-(

Hope this has been of some help!

Paul
firedragonuk@hotmail.com - 29 Dec 2003 18:55 GMT
> i) If you are called and you just don't answer you are charged for both
> legs
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> on
> uderground trains etc

Blooming heck! That is terrible! I think if I go abroad, the phone will be
staying at home. I would have assumed that no answer with no voicemail means
no charge and that would have stung! I mean, if someone just keeps trying to
get in touch surely that equals a huge bill?
Sounds like the only way to ensure call charges have no nasty surprises is
to have unconditional diverts turned on. At least then there would be some
form of contact available. Looking at o2 seems received texts are free and
sent ones have a standard price rate so not that bad all told, well could
have been worse!

Actually bit miffed on Guernsey, Jersey, Isle of Man charges as I thought
those were part of the UK? Now just need to check if Northern Ireland use is
all from inclusive minutes.

It has been of help, thank you! I don't know why anyone would want to roam
unless they are rolling in cash.
Paul - 29 Dec 2003 19:35 GMT
> > i) If you are called and you just don't answer you are charged for both
> > legs
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> no charge and that would have stung! I mean, if someone just keeps trying to
> get in touch surely that equals a huge bill?

Sorry i just read what i wrote and it wasn't very clear. What i meant was:

i) If you are called and you just don't answer ***and the call goes to your
voicemail *** you are charged for both legs of the call
ii) If you are called and your phone is out of coverage but still "signed
in" to the foreign network ***and the call goes to voicemail*** you are
charged for both legs of the call.

Paul
hairydog@despammed.com - 29 Dec 2003 18:39 GMT
>1) If I am called and I do not answer, or no coverage etc and voicemail
>divert is on then I am charged for the call from the UK to me and then from
>me back to voicemail?

Yes

>2) If voicemail is deactivated and I don't answer the phone or am
>unavailable etc are there any charges? Or are they only applicable on
>termination?

No

>3) Do I pay for UK -> me text message cost?

No

>4) If I use my phone to always divert to voicemail. Is that an unconditional
>divert and so a caller goes straight to UK voicemail and so no extra charges
>for me?

Yes

>5) When abroad if my phone is non-international activated or not turned on
>then it is as if I am still in UK? The minute (second?) the phone latches
>onto a foreign network then all calls will go abroad until I am
>re-registered onto a UK network? So large voicemail bills possible.

Yes

See http://www.mobileshop.org/roaming/answerphone.htm

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firedragonuk@hotmail.com - 29 Dec 2003 18:59 GMT
> >2) If voicemail is deactivated and I don't answer the phone or am
> >unavailable etc are there any charges? Or are they only applicable on
> >termination?
>
> No

Urk! Now confused, as the other answer said costs do apply.

in this mobile world, you would have thought that it would be really simple!
hairydog@despammed.com - 29 Dec 2003 20:32 GMT
>Urk! Now confused, as the other answer said costs do apply.

The other answer must have been wrong, then. It voicemail is off, and
someone calls your phone when you are roaming, and it is off or out of
coverage, you will be charged for the divert leg for the duration of
the call. There is no call duration, and so there is no charge.

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firedragonuk@hotmail.com - 29 Dec 2003 20:42 GMT
> >Urk! Now confused, as the other answer said costs do apply.
>
> The other answer must have been wrong, then. It voicemail is off, and
> someone calls your phone when you are roaming, and it is off or out of
> coverage, you will be charged for the divert leg for the duration of
> the call. There is no call duration, and so there is no charge.

Yeah, it was clarified by the guy, in this thread actually.

So thanks to the two of you, I think I know what's what now, phew!
R. Mark Clayton - 30 Dec 2003 12:09 GMT
> >1) If I am called and I do not answer, or no coverage etc and voicemail
> >divert is on then I am charged for the call from the UK to me and then from
> >me back to voicemail?
>
> Yes

It depends on where you set the divert up.  If you set it up before leaving
the UK then no otherwise both legs.
hairydog@despammed.com - 30 Dec 2003 12:42 GMT
>It depends on where you set the divert up.  If you set it up before leaving
>the UK then no otherwise both legs.

No, it makes no difference at all where you set it up: conditional
diverts are charged for both legs.

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R. Mark Clayton - 30 Dec 2003 21:09 GMT
> >It depends on where you set the divert up.  If you set it up before leaving
> >the UK then no otherwise both legs.
>
> No, it makes no difference at all where you set it up: conditional
> diverts are charged for both legs.

I stand corrected - slight confusion between this and unconditional diverts.

> --
>
> Iain
> the out-of-date hairydog guide to mobile phones
> http://www.hairydog.co.uk/cell1.html
> Browse now while stocks last!
Mark - 30 Dec 2003 17:58 GMT
>1) If I am called and I do not answer, or no coverage etc and voicemail
>divert is on then I am charged for the call from the UK to me and then from
>me back to voicemail?

Yes

Sorry - answer is NO. So long as you don't press the call answer key, the UK
caller will be speaking only to your UK network voicemail, just as if you
were in the UK.
Should you then choose to call voicemail to collect the message, you will
pay international call rates (outside UK to UK).
The only time you'll pay incoming call costs is if you're on an incoming
call (seems logical doesn't it).

>4) If I use my phone to always divert to voicemail. Is that an unconditional
>divert and so a caller goes straight to UK voicemail and so no extra charges
>for me?

Yes

This is effectively the same question as 1 - but with a contradictory
answer!

>5) When abroad if my phone is non-international activated or not turned on
>then it is as if I am still in UK? The minute (second?) the phone latches
>onto a foreign network then all calls will go abroad until I am
>re-registered onto a UK network? So large voicemail bills possible.

Yes

NO. Wrong again. Roaming is built into the GSM specification so the phone
will probably attach to a local network in the absence of the home network.
If roaming is 'activated' on your account you can make/receive calls (since
the local network will register your phone as 'roamed' with the home
network, and calls go through both networks). If roaming is not 'activated'
you cant make or receive calls - as the home network will not allow them to
pass.
What would be the point in having to activate the roaming service on your
account if the scenario in 5 were true?!

HTH
Mark
hairydog@despammed.com - 30 Dec 2003 18:41 GMT
>>1) If I am called and I do not answer, or no coverage etc and voicemail
>>divert is on then I am charged for the call from the UK to me and then from
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>caller will be speaking only to your UK network voicemail, just as if you
>were in the UK.

Why the hell do idiots like you post totally incorrect answers as if
they know what they are talking about?

For a conditional divert to voicemail, the call goes to the roamed-to
network, and if it can't be delivered, it is diverted back to the UK
voicemail. Both legs are charged to the user. It may not seem fair,
but that's what happens.

Most of your other comments are equally wrong

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Iain
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Mark - 31 Dec 2003 00:10 GMT
I checked this point and you are indeed right, I was wrong.

And yes, it is unfair.

My other comments though are I believe correct.

Please re-read the above and notice the absence of insults to you, like
'idiot'.

Rude ignoramus, yes, idiot, no.
hairydog@despammed.com - 31 Dec 2003 11:17 GMT
>Please re-read the above and notice the absence of insults to you, like
>'idiot'.
>
>Rude ignoramus, yes, idiot, no.

It is one thing posting incorrect information: we all make mistakes
from time to time.

It is entirely different "correcting" a correct posting with an
incorrect comment.

I would prefer to think of it as the act of an idiot than of someone
who maliciously chooses to mislead and anachronize.

However, if it upsets you so much, I apologise. Please check you facts
before "correcting" accurate postings in future.

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Iain
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hairydog@despammed.com - 31 Dec 2003 17:26 GMT
>chooses to mislead and anachronize

I didn't actually write that, but my spoil chicken thinks I meant to.

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